11-06-2013, 09:56 AM
No, no. You didn't get my point. To make my point clear, look at this situation.
A vendor gets whatever 'y' cents per line from US client, vender pays 'z' paise per line to MTs. At this time 1 dollar = Rs.50.
After few months, rupee (most of the times sadly) falls, and 1 dollar = Rs.58
So now though the vendor gets same 'y' cents per line, he actually get more in paise because rupee against dollar has gone down, so gets more over and above his margin without doing anything whereas poor MTs continue to get the same 'z' cents per line when naturally petrol prices etc. go up as rupee has slid down.
In plain and simple words, pay MTs too at cents per line rather than paisa per line, so as when rupee slides or climbs, MTs too directly get the benefit or loss respectively.
A vendor gets whatever 'y' cents per line from US client, vender pays 'z' paise per line to MTs. At this time 1 dollar = Rs.50.
After few months, rupee (most of the times sadly) falls, and 1 dollar = Rs.58
So now though the vendor gets same 'y' cents per line, he actually get more in paise because rupee against dollar has gone down, so gets more over and above his margin without doing anything whereas poor MTs continue to get the same 'z' cents per line when naturally petrol prices etc. go up as rupee has slid down.
In plain and simple words, pay MTs too at cents per line rather than paisa per line, so as when rupee slides or climbs, MTs too directly get the benefit or loss respectively.
